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Investment Test - Tell me the Cost
MBK
Member Posts: 2,918 ✭✭✭
Just this morning with all the stress about IBM missing on its numbers, I decided to check on my holding. Something caught my attention!
So I looked up my three transactions:
Jan 2007 Buy 60 at $94.60 for $5684
Jan 2012 Buy 40 at $183.62 for $7353
Oct 2013 Sell 50 at $174 for $8693
Own 50 now worth $8154
Do I show a loss or a gain?
So I looked up my three transactions:
Jan 2007 Buy 60 at $94.60 for $5684
Jan 2012 Buy 40 at $183.62 for $7353
Oct 2013 Sell 50 at $174 for $8693
Own 50 now worth $8154
Do I show a loss or a gain?
Comments
Bottom line is what is it worth now and and what will it be worth when you sell. Right now you are out over $4300 dollars so it's a negative outcome so far.
For your question, which shares did you sell?
You could have anywhere form a $394 gain to a $3955 gain, again, not counting fees, taxes etc.
for 16847.00
100 shares at $13,037 ($5684+$7353). That works out to $130.37 per share, based on dollar-cost averaging.
When you sold 50 at $174 per share, OVERALL that is a gain. $174 -$130.37 = $43.63 per share gain over your AVERAGE cost.
It might depend on which shares you sold. I'm not sure if that comes into play here or not, since I'm going by your AVERAGE cost.
Perry Shooter is correct in his statement about your totals (spent $13,037 and sold for $16,847)
That would show you a total gain of $3,810. Note: DON'T count that money until you have it in your hands/accounts.
Big Al (I am not an accountant nor did I stay at a Holiday Inn last night, but I can <mostly> do math!) [;)][:)]
sell price = sum
- or plus
If you won pay here... Uncle Sam[8]
Edit: Just noticed you asked about cost, not gain. It depends on how much of the basis (cost) you deducted on the Oct 13 sale. Your cost should be 1/2 of the original two purchases since you sold 1/2 of the original two purchases in 2013.
Profit or loss, though you didn't ask, is the total amount paid to purchase versus total amount realized from sales. Three possibilities here. A loss, a wash, or a gain.
Capital gains or losses are a different story. In theory you'll take each share purchased, record the price paid, then record the proceeds at sale, and finally figure the difference for a gain or loss. Time held for each share may also be a factor when the tax man becomes involved. Reality may be a bit different but that's the theory anyway.
I suspect that taxes were figured on the shares sold as follows:
50 of the 60 shares sold in Oct 2013 cost you $94.60 each. (I'm unaware of whether this amount included associated costs.) Those 50 shares sold for $174 each and you paid taxes on the difference between purchase and sales price. In other words a gain.
You now own 50 shares. 10 purchased for $94.60 and 40 purchased at $183.62. Assuming you sold all shares today at $163.00 then your gain will be $68.40 per share on the first 10 and a loss of $20.62 on the remaining 40 purchased at $183.62.
Rough math tells me a gain of $680.40 and a loss of about $820.00. In other words a net loss of about $140.00.
Without knowing your tax costs I can only figure it is the cost of the shares at 130.37 from the sale price of 174. Or 2181.5 less commissions on both buy and sale?
You sold for $ 174.00 per share.
In FY 2013, you would have paid taxes on a profit of $ 2174.50 less brokerage fees.
You currently show a gain of $ 32.71 per share but until sold, there is no realized gain or loss.
Brad Steele
Just this morning with all the stress about IBM missing on its numbers, I decided to check on my holding. Something caught my attention!
So I looked up my three transactions:
Jan 2007 Buy 60 at $94.60 for $5684
Jan 2012 Buy 40 at $183.62 for $7353
Oct 2013 Sell 50 at $174 for $8693
Own 50 now worth $8154
Do I show a loss or a gain?
You'll have to pull your 2013 tax year schedule D to know.
Your cost basis now is dependent upon what cost basis lot you used previously.
All those replies were interesting and as a group, quite confusing.
The account is at Fidelity, and is an IRA, so there was actually no tax effect, and the cost was only needed for performance purposes. But I was confused originally by seeing a loss. What happened is that Fidelity took the default option to use FIFO lot accounting. First in, first out. So they allocated 50/60th of the cost of the original purchase sale, and showed a profit which in a taxable account would FRONT LOAD the payment to the IRS.
Note, the Cost Basis is not impacted by the profit you take, it is merely the allocation of cost to the shares that remain.
Total cost for both lots $13037
Cost subtracted from the first lot for sale of 50: $4737
Remaining cost basis ... $8300
You actually ave the option to select actual "lots" to account for in a sale, you have to tell your broker. You can also go average cost, LIFO, or FIFO.
Thanks for all your participation.