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Does the 2nd amendment protect you.........

RTKBARTKBA Member Posts: 331 ✭✭✭
from state laws? I am not so sure that it does.

Comments

  • JunkballerJunkballer Member Posts: 9,298 ✭✭✭✭
    edited November -1
    I'm pretty sure, almost positive no state law can over-ride a federal law regarding your constitutional rights.

    "Never do wrong to make a friend----or to keep one".....Robert E. Lee

  • Mr. PerfectMr. Perfect Member, Moderator Posts: 66,404 ******
    edited November -1
    If the state law conflicts with "the highest law in the land", I would say that indeed it does protect you. They way it's often gotten around is a misapplication of Amendment 10.
    Some will die in hot pursuit
    And fiery auto crashes
    Some will die in hot pursuit
    While sifting through my ashes
    Some will fall in love with life
    And drink it from a fountain
    That is pouring like an avalanche
    Coming down the mountain
  • babunbabun Member Posts: 11,038 ✭✭✭
    edited November -1
    The Constitution was written to LIMIT the power of government, NOT to give the people "rights". Add. X says it all....""The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people.""
    Our founding Fathers were so afraid {and rightly so} of big federal power, that they set in place safe guards against it.

    The founders are spinning in their graves today......[V]
  • Don McManusDon McManus Member Posts: 23,682 ✭✭✭✭
    edited November -1
    quote:Originally posted by RTKBA
    from state laws? I am not so sure that it does.


    The First Amendment specifically limits only Congress. The Second Amendment specifically guarentees a right to 'the people'.

    The argument has been made (successfully) that absent incorporation through the 14th Amendment, that the Bill of Rights only restricted the Federal Government. Obviously Amendments 4, 5, 6, 7, and 8 apply to and were targeted towards State and Local Governments, and there is no reason for, IMO, the historic misconception regarding the 2nd.

    The point, however, is moot now following McDonald, which formally incorporated the 2nd Amendment against the individual States via the due process clause of the 14th Amendment.

    In direct answer to your question, yes, the 2nd Amendment protects an individual citizen from State Laws that are deemed unconstitutional. We must remember, however, that the McDonald decision codified governmental powers of licensing of individuals, registration of firearms, and regulations at to what type of firearms are to be made available.

    So the very real answer to your question is yes, it protects you, but it has been gutted, and retains very little power to protect you from whims of your legislators.
    Freedom and a submissive populace cannot co-exist.

    Brad Steele
  • COBmmcmssCOBmmcmss Member Posts: 1,174 ✭✭✭✭✭
    edited November -1
    For an answer to the original question, I'll refer you back to pre-1965.

    Back in 1965, prior to the Feds saying the 4th Amendment applied to the states too, prior to saying the 5th, 6th and 8th Amendments applied - the states all but ignored them.

    There are some very famous case histories on why the Federal courts finally came out and clearly held that the state officers could NOT get away with what was considered a violation at the Federal police (FBI) level. Until that time, they did.

    So why doesn't the 2nd Amendment trump ANY state law (say NYC or California as a whole)? It's because it's never been taken to the Federal Supreme Court and argued. In fact, SCOTUS has successfully avoided stepping on that landmine for some reason.

    Until they do, you can bet scum like Cuomo and Blooming-idiot are going to make all the laws they can in their little corner of the world and then expect us to kow-tow to them.


    Just a simple example explanation, not a full-fledged lesson plan.[:p]

    COB
  • RTKBARTKBA Member Posts: 331 ✭✭✭
    edited November -1
    Thanks for the replies, but I am still not sure. Take my state, the Maine constitution was established in 1820 and has a bill of rights. These rights closely mirror the U.S bill of rights, freedom of the press, freedom of religion and the right to keep and bear arms etc. If the U.S bill of rights had to be obeyed by the states than why did the states make there own BOR?

    In the preamble to the U.S BOR in plainly states, "a number of the States, having at the time of their adopting the Constitution expressed a desire in order to prevent misconstruction or abuse of its powers, that further declaratory and restrictive clauses should be added: And as extending the ground of public confidence in the Government will best ensure the beneficent ends of its institution."

    Wouldn't this mean that the BOR was meant to further restrict the federal government and not the states?
  • salzosalzo Member Posts: 6,396 ✭✭
    edited November -1
    The bill of rights was written to protect the states from FEDERAL interference in those areas specified in the bill of rights. Properly understood, the constitution prohibits interference in those areas mentioned, even without the bill of rights.
    Properly understood, the bill of rights is a bill of prohibitions placed on the federal government.
    Many say that the 14th amendment binds the bill of rights to the states- this is a most recent "theory", and in theory and practice, an absolutely incorrect theory.
    What the 14th amendment does is abolish the bill of rights (and the rest of the constitution)and places in the hands of the federal government the authority to decide what rights we can have, and what rights we can not have. And you can bet the farm that the government has no interest in extending a right to bear arms to the citizens.
    THe sad reality is that the 14th amendment com[letely erased the constitution of the founders. It placed in the hands of the federal government the authority to do whatever it wishes, anything in the dead constitution prohibiting it notwithstanding.
    So NO the constitution does not protect yo from the states, from the feds- not from any government entity that is intent on removing gun rights.
  • COBmmcmssCOBmmcmss Member Posts: 1,174 ✭✭✭✭✭
    edited November -1
    RTKBA,

    There are a number of parts to your question. Think back to when they tried to do city bans on guns. Then Mayor Feinstein and San Francisco failed due to the California State Constitution being written like the U.S. Constitution. However, the one in Chicago (Morton Grove) was seen as valid because Illinois didn't have a 2nd Amendment that was like the U.S. Constitution.

    My previous comment was an attempt to illustrate that the Federal 2nd Amendment has not been viewed as applying to all 50 states. If it had, then we'd probably have a system of reciprocity for concealed permits which are now a state controlled issue ironically.

    If you want to go over this at length, I'd be happy to go through it with you via phone some evening when you have time.

    COB
  • RTKBARTKBA Member Posts: 331 ✭✭✭
    edited November -1
    quote:Originally posted by COBmmcmss
    RTKBA,

    There are a number of parts to your question. Think back to when they tried to do city bans on guns. Then Mayor Feinstein and San Francisco failed due to the California State Constitution being written like the U.S. Constitution. However, the one in Chicago (Morton Grove) was seen as valid because Illinois didn't have a 2nd Amendment that was like the U.S. Constitution.

    My previous comment was an attempt to illustrate that the Federal 2nd Amendment has not been viewed as applying to all 50 states. If it had, then we'd probably have a system of reciprocity for concealed permits which are now a state controlled issue ironically.

    If you want to go over this at length, I'd be happy to go through it with you via phone some evening when you have time.

    COB


    Thanks COB, I appreciate the offer but I prefer to have debates on the forum so others can read them.
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